Dear Dr. Vinzent, If "Paul" in Galatians 5:21 ("as I have said before") is really referring to 1 Corinthians 15 we must assume that "he" is already acting as a redactor of a collection of letters since in an actual historical situation the Galatians could not have known what he had written earlier to the Corinthians. LG, Peter Gerken
If "Paul" in Galatians 5:21 ("as I have said before") is really referring to 1 Corinthians 15 we must assume that he is already acting as a redactor of a collection of letters since in an actual historical situation the Galatians could not know what he wrote earlier to the Corinthians.
I’m puzzled about “Paul’s” apparent reference to 1 Cor. 15 in Gal. 5:21.
If "Paul" in Galatians 5:21 ("as I have said before") is really referring to 1 Corinthians 15 must we not assume that “he" is already acting as a redactor of a collection of letters since in an actual historical situation the Galatians could not have known what he had written earlier to the Corinthians? The only other possibility would have to be an earlier letter to the Galatians. Or am I misunderstanding something?
Dear Dr. Vinzent,
ReplyDeleteIf "Paul" in Galatians 5:21 ("as I have said before") is really referring to 1 Corinthians 15 we must assume that "he" is already acting as a redactor of a collection of letters since in an actual historical situation the Galatians could not have known what he had written earlier to the Corinthians.
LG,
Peter Gerken
If "Paul" in Galatians 5:21 ("as I have said before") is really referring to 1 Corinthians 15 we must assume that he is already acting as a redactor of a collection of letters since in an actual historical situation the Galatians could not know what he wrote earlier to the Corinthians.
ReplyDeleteI’m puzzled about “Paul’s” apparent reference to 1 Cor. 15 in Gal. 5:21.
ReplyDeleteIf "Paul" in Galatians 5:21 ("as I have said before") is really referring to 1 Corinthians 15 must we not assume that “he" is already acting as a redactor of a collection of letters since in an actual historical situation the Galatians could not have known what he had written earlier to the Corinthians? The only other possibility would have to be an earlier letter to the Galatians. Or am I misunderstanding something?